If the improper integral from -infinity to infinity is 0 then there t0 such that the integral from t0 to infinity equal minus the integral from -infinity to t0

Look at it this way. T
If you split the area in two then you have  two areas that adds up to finite numbers. Let's call them L and R (left and right).

L+R = 0

So ..
> If the improper integral from -infinity to infinity is 0 then there t0 such that the integral from t0 to infinity equal minus the integral from -infinity to t0

If *f* is indeed integrable over **R** with (improper) integral 0, as is implicit in the statement of your exercise, then wouldn't it be the case that

- Integral\_-∞\^*t*\_0 *f*(*x*) d*x* = -Integral\_*t*\_0\^+∞ *f*(*x*) d*x*

for *every* *t*\_0 in **R**?

After all, when we take the equation

- Integral\_-∞\^+∞ *f*(*x*) d*x* = 0,

then decompose the domain (-∞,+∞) as the union (-∞,*t*\_0] ∪ [*t*\_0, +∞), what can we conclude?

Hope this helps point you in a useful direction. Good luck!

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