No. If X is a Bernoulli trial with probability of success p, that means X takes the value of 1 with probability p, and 0 with probability 1-p. Y = nX is also a similar to a Bernoulli trial, except is does not take the value of 1, it takes the value n with probability p.

Now, if Y = X1 + … + Xn, where X1, …, Xn are iid Bernoulli trials, then Y would be binomial(n, p).